The administration is the outward visible form of covenantal life and organization…. That promise was both progressively revealed and progressively administered thereafter under Noah, Abraham, Moses, and David. If the Old Covenant was not an administration of the covenant of grace what was it and where was the covenant of grace during this time? To say that the Mosaic covenant was (in its legal aspect) subordinate to the covenant of grace is to say little more than to say that it is a codicil or “fading” (Paul) or “inferior” (Hebrews). Another way of expressing that God does the saving, not we ourselves, is to say that our salvation is due to God’s work. It isn’t. But under that covenant salvation was by grace. I hope to write a response and email if you’re ok with that. Fix me up, will ya?! Particular Baptists and the Substance/Administration Distinction. If we conceptualize God’s saving work as “the covenant of redemption” between Father and Son, then certainly the necessity of our law keeping is excluded in there, we not even being contributory parties to that covenant. How would you argue against their view that a promise and covenant are different? It began at Pentecost (Acts 2) and will end when all who are born again by the baptism of the Holy Spirit are raptured out of this world to be with Jesus Himself (1 Thessalonians 4:13-18). It so unified Scripture and redemption as to cover over the theological differences between law and gospel. In the first covenant, works were required as the condition of life; â¦ The New Covenant is the concrete manifestation of the heavenly realities in the visible world. They believe that the Gospel was given “first of all to Adam in the promise of salvation by the seed of the woman, and afterwards by farther steps, until the full discovery thereof was completed in the New Testament” (LBCF 7.3), i.e. The covenant of grace did not begin in the New Covenant. It is true that there is a particularly legal quality to the Mosaic administration of the covenant of grace. Does the belief that Mosaic covenant is an administration of the CoG and the subsequent belief that baptism replace circumcision mark what makes one Reformed? I do not blame you for being a little confused. I am interested to see what kind of interaction you get. Here’s what Paul did NOT say: “the law is of faith, since by faith, he who practices them shall live by them.” What he said was Gal 3:12. I would argue against their view by paying close attention to what the text of holy Scripture actually says. The 1689 Federalism answer to this question centers around the meaning of "established"/"enacted" (Hebrews 8:6). Our acceptance with God is utterly and only on the basis of Christ’s law-keeping for us, which is imputed to us, the benefit of which (salvation) is received by God’s free favor alone, through faith (resting, trusting, receiving) alone. In chapter 9 we read: 16 For where there is a testament [same word as âcovenantâ in the original Greek], there must also of necessity be the death of the testator. That which before had no visible, outward worship, proper and peculiar unto it, is now made the only rule and instrument of worship unto the whole church, nothing being to be admitted therein but what belongs unto it, and is appointed by it. First, the 2LBCF states in. In his later letter, Romans, Paul also says “the law brings about wrath” (Rm 4:15). If arguing for a unity of substance between the Old and New Covenants is the definition of “Reformed orthodoxy”; that definition would put you beyond the pale of Reformed orthodoxy as defined by the Westminster and Belgic Confessions. Trump still owes El Paso $569,000 for his 2019 rally. Some deny that this has any reference to the covenant; and it certainly does not refer to any formal establishment of a covenant… Up to the time of Abraham there was no formal establishment of the covenant of grace. Certainly Adam, and we ourselves as readers, witnessed God’s righteousness revealed in an unexpected manner, completely. The civil & ceremonial laws were added under Moses. The Old Covenant also contained the moral law, as all covenants do. The question is when did it start? In this understanding of redemptive history, what is revealed is that there will be a covenant of grace in the New Covenant but that everything that transpired before is really some version of the Old Covenant. He did not read the history of redemption like a Baptist and he certainly did not draw Baptist conclusions. Each of the administrations had its own facet and, in its own way, pointed believers to the fulfillment of the promise. According to Hebrews 11 Abraham was not looking for land but for heaven. This was all prompted by, in the original blog,”âPaul says that the typological Mosaic law (not the abiding moral law) is ânot of faithâ (Gal 3:12).â” Hope this helps see my perplexion, as they used to spell it. Many thanks, Dr. Clark, for a very succinct yet thorough posting on this doctrine. Your comment seemed to be collapsing Dispensationalist with Reformed Baptists. Thank you for taking the time to respond. Based on this foundation, Particular Baptists immediately connected the Abrahamic covenant to the Mosaic covenant. That’s not my job. One easy way to remember this is the Lord’s reminder that we can’t do a single good thing without Him (Jn 15:5), but unlike Ohio State, the Lord has not given us shiny helmets with stars all over them for instances of working together with Him, so we need patience for awhile (1 Cor 4:5). This seems like a rather significant difference between the Reformed and the Particular Baptist tradition(s). When the New Covenant Began and the Old Covenant Ended. His argument that the Jews were blessed for having participated in the history of redemption is a defense of the significance of the external administration of the covenant of grace. He’s a good student of the PB tradition. The Scriptures themselves will not allow us to turn Abraham into a covenant of works. I am wondering biblically if you can support this with verses? Thanks for this, Scott. In this sense, it served as a reminder of the Adamic Covenant of Works, but it was not itself the Adamic Covenant of Works. This implies that the covenant of grace is identical to the New Covenant. 31:31-34 ) and He was intended to be the fulfillment of that promise. and it is founded in that eternal covenant transaction that was between the Father and the Son about the redemption of the elect. The moral law was part of this covenant as well. I go into the Abrahamic covenant in more detail there. I am not making a judgment about what is authentic Particular Baptist theology but only making clear that, in Reformed theology, the covenant of grace is confessed to have been operating in redemptive history, not merely by prolepsis or by anticipation but that it was really and truly in effect. The covenant of grace in the Old Testament comes to its clearest and fullest expression in God's covenant with Abraham (see Gen. 12:1â3; 17:1â14). The New Covenant did not begin until Jesusâ death, burial, resurrection, and ascension were complete. Adamic covenant. These are two different classes of obedience. I am increasingly convinced that this language has been misunderstood both by Baptist writers (who give the impression that Owen was with them or would have been had he lived longer) and by some Reformed writers. No Substantial Theological Difference between the First and Second London Baptist Confessions, Charles Ryrie identified 3 essential tenets of Dispensationalism, Is 1689 Federalism Dispensational? That which before had no visible, outward worship, proper and peculiar unto it, was then made the only rule and instrument of worship unto the whole church. This covenant of grace revealed and concluded in history is founded on the eternal covenant between the Father and the Son for the redemption of the elect. The 1689 Federalism answer to this question centers around the meaning of “established”/”enacted” (Hebrews 8:6). Law vs grace Must I forgive others to be forgiven by God? Presbytery of the Mid-Atlantic The 1689 Baptists will argue likewise the covenant of grace was revealed but not established in the OC. More explicitly, the 1689 says that the covenant of grace, which was established by the blood of Jesus, was retroactive during the Old Testament dispensation: “Although the price of redemption was not actually paid by Christ until after His incarnation, yet the virtue, efficacy, and benefit thereof were communicated to the elect in all ages” (8:6). An infant is in utero, then post partum, he is in diapers, short pants, jeans, and finally, as grown up, he puts on a suit. LBCF 8.6 confesses this…, But while the use of administration in the WCF includes the notion of “getting thing A to person B,” its use of “Administration” refers more fully to “a diverse manner of dispensing, and outward managing the making of the covenant with men, but the covenant was still one and the same, clothed and set forth in a diverse manner, and did no other ways differ then and now, but as one and the self same man differeth from himself, cloathed sutably one way in his minority, and another in his riper age.” [David Dickson, Therapeutica Sacra (Edinburgh: 1697), 142.] Although the price of redemption was not actually paid by Christ till after His incarnation, yet the virtue, efficacy, and benefit thereof were communicated to the elect in all ages successively from the beginning of the world, in and by those promises, types, and sacrifices wherein He was revealed, and signified to be the seed which should bruise the serpent’s head;h’ and the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world,i’ being the same yesterday, and to-day, and for ever.j’. I think you’re assuming things that are not stated. Redemptive history is the battle between the Serpent and the Seed of the Woman, who must die even as he crushes the head of the serpent. In short, Moses is the full discovery of circumcision of flesh as made with Abraham and his seed and served as a type as well as an embryo for the CoG made with Adam, Noah, Abraham (and his seed – through Isaac, Jacob, 12 tribes), David until its full discovery in Christ. For a 1689 Federalism understanding of the texts in question, please see: No. Coxe said: “In this Mode of transacting [the covenant], the Lord was pleased to draw the first Lines of that Form of Covenant-Relation, which the natural Seed of Abraham, were fully stated in by the Law of Moses, which was a Covenant of Works, and its Condition or Terms, Do this and live.”. Even if the sacrifice of the covenant of grace by which all blessings proceed was not shed till long after the promise was made, many had already been called and did possess by faith the eternal inheritance. The article he wrote is quite clear. Time after time, Noah, Abraham, Moses, and David are portrayed not merely as anticipating a future covenant of grace to be inaugurated in the New Covenant, but to be participants in shadowy administrations of the covenant of grace. The whole dealing with Adam that Genesis 3 depicts, none of it follows as a consequence of Gen 2:17. They did not speak of a covenant of works and a covenant of grace, as we do. The law is not of faith, because the law judges our work, whereas, “on the contrary (Gal 3:12)” (to faith), as Paul says, he who lives by the law, lives by doing the law, whereas faith relies upon Him and His work. Based upon a credible profession of faith, we judge (with charity) a person to be saved. He is the father of all Christians, Jewish and Gentile alike. All are agreed on the second question. The argument is being made that the original and true sense of these articles is that the covenant of grace was not actually in operation under the OT because, by definition, the covenant of grace can only be the New Covenant. Here I’m doing it by way of contrast. Covenant, Justification, and Pastoral Ministry, Why Caution About Jonathan Edwards Is In Order, Did Abraham Kuyper Become An Anabaptist? The first part of LBC 7:3 answers this question: This covenant is revealed in the gospel; first of all to Adam in the promise of salvation by the seed of the woman, and afterwards by farther steps, until the full discovery thereof was completed in the New Testament…, The 1689 federalism replaced the paedobaptist concept of one covenant of grace under different administrations by the one covenant of grace revealed by farther steps model…. He did not say, “I will become your God in the New Covenant.” Yahweh was a God to Abraham and to his children right then. Reformed Christians speak of Scripture as the unfolding drama of God's covenant of grace. Neither the Noahic, Abrahamic, Mosaic, nor Davidic covenants were the Covenant of Grace. I don’t know that this medium would be wholly conducive or even appropriate to that. The question then naturally arises: Did the Covenant of Grace exist during the Old Testament? O T as though, like the Dispensationalists, God has two completely different It was the pre-incarnate Son who called to Abraham, “Here am I!” The prefiguring of the future realities and the intrusion of the ultimate realities into the period of types and shadows are all tell us that the types and shadows were administrations (and not mere anticipations) of the covenant of grace. The confession ends this section by affirming that âit is alone by the grace of this covenant that all the posterity of fallen Adam that ever were saved did obtain life and blessed immortalityâ. Baptists withhold the rite of covenant initiation from the children of believers on the ground that the New Covenant is substantially different from the preceding covenants. There is much in your response that I would like to answer. 2:9), be the mediator of a better covenant (Heb. 4:4) he would fulfill the Law perfectly (1 Pet. ways of dealing with his people. A covenant is a promise and promise is a covenant. You misunderstand the promised-established idea of the New Covenant. There are versions of this around since Sadoleto versus Calvin, not only is there post-conversion law keeping, but it is that, our post-conversion law keeping, that is sine qua non, that is necessary for our acceptance with God; that the righteousness of Christ imputed is insufficient, that what actually is sine qua non for salvation is imperfect law keeping post conversion. Have you listened to the podcast series? FAQ: Do you deny the visible/invisible church distinction? Justice is not something that contains within itself a watered-down version that people with faith can substitute and get their behavior graded on a curve. Most of our theologians were clear in saying that the Mosaic covenant was, as Paul says, a “pedagogue” (ÏÎ±Î¹Î´Î±Î³ÏÎ³á½¸Ï; Gal 3:24âa ÏÎ±Î¹Î´Î±Î³ÏÎ³á½¸Ï had a ruler or a switch with which to punish students who did not memorize their lessons completely). Moses identified with Christ rather than the Egypt. 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